So we talked a little in class last week about how one defines violence. I still am not sure what I think about the subject though I must admit that I had a lot to say... I liked how we talked about punishing children and other "hard-to-define" issues rather than things like war or murder. I think it is in these examples of violence that are difficult to define that we can have a good idea about how we define it.
So I am blogging about this today to get a couple thoughts out that I have been formulating in my head and unable to get out, and I figure writing it down in a blog for the class is a safer way to objectively look at my crazy ideas than doing something impulsive like try to write my definition paper about something that may just be completely ludicrous. So my theory starts with the the assumption that what is considered violent is highly influenced by culture. Not exclusively though, because I live in a culture that considers hunting and other forms of killing animals for amusement is acceptable and I personally feel appalled by the idea, so I would have to say that the way we as humans define violence is heavily based on culture and our own personal experiences and understandings. In that case, my theory of violence is not necessarily a way of understanding "objectively" what is violent or not violent, but rather a rubric for assessing violence that changes on an individual scale.
It starts with the idea that I was talking about in class; the fact that to determine violence we cannot just look at one factor. If we just look at the interpretation of the victim, we have to consider a parent sending a child to their room for kicking and screaming when they don't get their way to be a form of violence because the child thinks hell has been unleashed unto them. Similarly, if we just look at the harm that is done to the victim, that would qualify a doctor who fails to recover a patient to be committing violence.
One factor though we can exclude is intent. I would say that if the perpetrator of the action did so with the intent to harm the victim, it should qualify as violence. But what about cases where the harm done was to prevent an even greater harm, like the example of the parent pushing a child in the street to keep them from getting hit by a car (the parent may be hurting the child, but it may be the only way to save his/her life). We could call that justified violence, or we could extend the definition of violence to say that the amount of harm done was excessive to the situation that called for it. Therefore we can say that even if the perpetrator intended to harm the victim, it is only violence if it is excessive to the situation.
Now what constitutes excessive is highly subjective. I would consider personally a lot of things excessive that many would not; such as spanking a child, or attacking someone who we think may attack us. This is where personal and cultural bias comes in. What is acceptable to one person may be excessive to another. I don't want to be the one to draw any particular line in the sand, I just think that by saying excessive it allows for more wiggle-room in determining if individual actions are considered violent.
So we determined that if the perpetrator intended excessive harm, we can call the action violent. But what about cases where the perpetrators have good intentions? It has been said that the road to hell is paved with good intentions, and it has been seen that some of history's most depraved acts have been done with the best of intentions. Therefore, we have to take other criteria into consideration, when determining whether an action is violent.
These other criteria present are the victims perceptions and the actual, objective harm done. The victims perceptions of the action are quite important in situation where the perpetration may not have intended excessive harm, or may have a skewed perception of harm. Once again however, this view is flawed the same way that looking at perpetrators perceptions is flawed. An individual can certainly take a sincerely not violent action or even an unintended accident and blow it out of proportion making themselves out to be the victims of something unspeakable. As with the example of the child being sent to eir room.
Therefore, it is important to be aware that in addition to victims reported suffering, one must also take into account objective harm. That is on a scale beyond either parties perception. I am now considering what the criteria for what constitutes "objective" when talking about harm, but thus far I like utilizing Galtung's method for determining violence. The idea that harm is something that limits our life potential seems to be a good method for assessing the amount of harm that is done. In that way, we can continue to include things like psychological, physical, educational, and social limitations on one's life potential.
So now we have three qualifiers for measuring violence: intent of perpetrator, perception of victim, and objective harm done. Let's talk about how they come together. It is important that if violent intent on it's own is considered "excessive" then we need not worry about the other categories. I would say that violent intent constitutes violent action regardless of the outcome. The other two categories are a bit different though. I would say that the other two categories would have to be codependent. If both the victims perceptions of the action constitutes "excessiveness" and the actual harm done is "excessive" than it does not matter whether the perpetrator intended the action to be violent, it was violent nonetheless. It is unfair to call an action violent that didn't intend or actually harm someone just because the victim seems to be very upset by it (see once again the child example). However, what about cases that cause excessive harm, but neither the victim nor the perpetrator think it is excessive? There are two types scenarios where this could happen. One is the example of the accident, such as a doctor trying hard to not have to amputate a patients leg, but not being able to properly get the blood transfusion in time. I would not call this violence, because it was neither the intent of the doctor, nor does it seem excessive by the patient's perspective even though objectively there was a lot of harm done. The other example is a little more difficult to write off. Say for instance there is a man who beats his wife, the man grew up in a household where there was a lot of abuse, so from his point of view it is not an excessive way of expressing frustration. His wife also, after years of abuse has come to accept it as a part of life and believes that she deserves the treatment that he gives her. In this case, both parties agree that the the harm done is not excessive, yet objectively we can see that there is a lot of emotional, physical, psychological, and social harm being done to the wife.
In both examples the parties did not view it as excessive, but the amount of harm done was objectively high. How do we qualify that? The answer seems to be to do something to lower the objective harm count of anything that was completely unintentional in this category. Or we could also create a second threshold for objective suffering.
Either way, the dichotomy has to be taken into account. I wrote this all out in chart form on a piece of paper, I'll need to refine it more though. That was a rather "Excessive" rant. I just thought I'd get my thoughts out somewhere.